Current Affairs 2026 Questions and Answers

Q1 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

The Supply Chain Resilience Initiative (SCRI), which formed the historical backdrop for the strategic economic security architecture at the 15th India-Japan Annual Summit, was officially launched in April 2021. Which of the following accurately describes its foundational membership?

1. A.It was launched exclusively as a bilateral agreement between India and Japan.
2. B.It was launched as a trilateral agreement exclusively among India, Japan, and Australia.
3. C.It was launched as a quadrilateral agreement among India, Japan, Australia, and the United States.
4. D.It was launched as a multilateral agreement exclusively among Quad members and South Korea.

Answer: B. The Supply Chain Resilience Initiative (SCRI) is a trilateral initiative officially launched in April 2021 by the trade ministers of India, Japan, and Australia.

Q2 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

According to the Economic Freedom of the World 2025 report, which of the following best describes the trajectory of global economic freedom?

1. A.It has steadily declined since 2000 due to the continuous expansion of government size across major economies.
2. B.It experienced a steady rise since 2000, but pandemic-era policy responses have recently erased nearly a decade of these gains.
3. C.It remained largely stagnant for a decade before experiencing a sharp decline specifically due to 2025 tariff policies.
4. D.It has continuously improved post-2020 as countries implemented liberalisation policies to attract foreign investment.

Answer: B. The report explicitly notes that before the COVID-19 pandemic, global economic freedom had been steadily rising since 2000.

Q3 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

Statement-I: In June 2022, India and the European Union formally relaunched their economic negotiations across three parallel tracks: Trade, Investment Protection, and Geographical Indications (GIs). Statement-II: The initial Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA) talks between India and the EU were suspended in 2013 due to significant differences over global energy security and supply chain resilience.

1. A.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. B.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does NOT explain Statement-I
3. C.Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. D.Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C. Statement-I is correct: Following the stalling of earlier frameworks, formal negotiations between India and the EU were relaunched in June 2022 across three parallel tracks (Trade, Investment Protection, and…

Q4 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

Match the following milestones and mechanisms in the evolution of EU-India relations (List-I) with their corresponding significance or features (List-II): List-I A. 2004 Strategic Partnership B. 2020 Roadmap to 2025 C. EUNAVFOR Atalanta D. 2026 Security and Defence Partnership List-II I. Initiated the pivot toward hard security with an emphasis on maritime security and counter-terrorism. Ii. Joint naval exercises that built momentum prior to formalizing defence as a core pillar. Iii. Mandates structured, regular dialogues and joint capacity-building specifically for cyber security and space. Iv. Historically dominated by trade, climate, and soft-power diplomacy.

1. A.A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
2. B.A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
3. C.A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
4. D.A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii

Answer: A. The correct matching is A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii.

Q5 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

Statement-I: The current G20 framework allows for the direct integration of the African Union Agenda 2063 into global macroeconomic policymaking. Statement-II: The African Union achieved permanent membership status in the G20 upon South Africa officially assuming the presidency from Brazil in December 2024.

1. A.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. B.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does NOT explain Statement-I
3. C.Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. D.Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C. Statement-I is correct: The African Union now participates as a permanent member of the G20, which allows for the direct integration of the African Union Agenda 2063 into global macroeconomic policymaking.

Q6 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

With reference to India's military expenditure, consider the following statements: 1. In 2024, India was overtaken by Germany to become the fifth-largest military spender globally. 2. To promote 'Aatmanirbharta', recent Indian defence budgets have increasingly earmarked a higher percentage of revenue expenditure for domestic procurement.

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A. Statement 1 is correct: According to the SIPRI 2024 report, India ranked as the fifth-largest military spender globally, having been overtaken by Germany (the top four being the US, China, Russia, and Germany).

Q7 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements regarding the BRICS grouping: 1. The grouping officially became 'BRICS' with the addition of South Africa during its first formal summit in 2009. 2. The economic agenda under India's 2026 presidency includes concrete de-dollarisation initiatives and the building of alternative financial payment systems for cross-border trade.

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B. Statement 1 is incorrect: The grouping held its first formal summit in 2009 in Yekaterinburg, Russia, as 'BRIC'. It did not become 'BRICS' until South Africa's addition in 2010.

Q8 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements: 1. The Global Economic Prospects is a flagship report issued twice a year by the World Bank. 2. The January 2026 report revised India's FY27 economic growth projection downward due to shifting global trade policies. 3. The projected global economic growth rate for 2026 remains below the historical average recorded in the decade preceding the COVID-19 pandemic. 4. The report urges structural reforms to prevent developing countries from falling into the Middle Income Trap.

1. A.Only one
2. B.Only two
3. C.Only three
4. D.All four

Answer: C. Statement 1 is correct: The Global Economic Prospects is a flagship report issued semi-annually (in January and June) by the World Bank.

Q9 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

During the February 2025 India-EU Trade and Technology Council (TTC) ministerial meeting, several strategic and economic issues were discussed. Which of the following was explicitly agreed upon or established during this specific meeting?

1. A.Immediate tariff reductions on highly protected sectors such as automobiles, steel, and dairy.
2. B.The formal conclusion and signing of the comprehensive India-EU Free Trade Agreement (FTA).
3. C.A EUR 60 million co-funded joint budget for research on EV battery recycling and waste-to-hydrogen.
4. D.The unilateral adoption of India's Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) across all European Union member states.

Answer: C. A specific EUR 60 million joint budget was allocated for research on EV battery recycling, waste-to-hydrogen, and marine plastic litter, requiring matching financial contributions from India and the EU's Horizon Europe…

Q10 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

The WTO's Global Trade Outlook and Statistics report of April 2025 highlights a clear sectoral divergence in global trade forecasts. What is the specific projection made in the report regarding this divergence?

1. A.Global merchandise trade volume is projected to contract by 0.2%, whereas services trade is forecast to expand by 4.0%.
2. B.Global services trade is projected to contract by 0.2% due to Trade Policy Uncertainty, while merchandise trade expands by 4.0%.
3. C.Both merchandise and services trade are projected to contract by 0.2% as nations move away from Most Favored Nation principles.
4. D.Merchandise trade is projected to maintain positive growth of 0.2%, while services trade growth remains stagnant.

Answer: A. The WTO report explicitly notes a clear split in sectoral performance, projecting a 0.2% contraction in global merchandise trade volume while predicting robust 4.0% growth in services trade.

Q11 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

With reference to the India-Singapore bilateral relationship, consider the following statements: 1. The elevation of ties in 2025 marks India's first Comprehensive Strategic Partnership with an ASEAN nation. 2. The 2025 summit concluded with immediate binding revisions to the tariff structures under the Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA). 3. A National Centre of Excellence for Advanced Manufacturing is to be established at the National Skill Training Institute in Chennai. 4. The India-Singapore Semiconductor Policy Dialogue was created to facilitate Business-to-Business (B2B) partnerships.

1. A.Only one
2. B.Only two
3. C.Only three
4. D.All four

Answer: B. Statement 1 is incorrect: India has actively elevated its ties with other key ASEAN nations, such as Vietnam, to the level of a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership; it is not exclusive to Singapore.

Q12 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

According to the World Bank's Global Economic Prospects 2025 report, which of the following is identified as the primary factor shielding India's economic growth from current global economic stagnation and headwinds?

1. A.Aggressive government capital expenditure, which continues to be the primary engine of growth since the immediate post-pandemic phase.
2. B.Domestic drivers including a robust services sector, rebounding private consumption, and revitalized manufacturing.
3. C.Favorable capital flows into emerging markets driven primarily by the easing of global inflation.
4. D.India's rapid expansion in global economic share, single-handedly accounting for approximately 45 percent of global GDP.

Answer: B. The report explicitly states that India's sustained growth is shielded from global headwinds by domestic drivers like a robust services sector, rebounding private consumption, a stronger labor market, and revitalized…

Q13 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements: 1. The February 2026 India-US Trade Deal officially restored India's status under the US Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) to facilitate duty-free entry of goods. 2. The newly established bilateral tech-transfer mechanism for processing critical minerals explicitly excludes rare earth elements. 3. The trade deal was embedded into the broader Critical Minerals Ministerial framework rather than being signed as a Comprehensive Free Trade Agreement (FTA). 4. Under the new trade deal, all punitive duties previously imposed by the US linked to India's historical Russian oil purchases have been officially lifted.

1. A.Only one
2. B.Only two
3. C.Only three
4. D.All four

Answer: B. Statement 1 is incorrect: Despite the massive reduction in reciprocal tariffs, India's status under the US Generalized System of Preferences (GSP), which was revoked in 2019, was not explicitly restored in this…

Q14 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements: 1. The restrictive Entity List from which the Indian entities were removed is administered by the US Department of State. 2. The recent removal from the Entity List is solely limited to India's atomic research centres, namely BARC and IGCAR. 3. The targeted Indian entities were originally placed on the Entity List following the Pokhran-II nuclear tests in 1998. 4. Prior to their removal, collaborative projects involving these entities in clean energy and advanced nuclear technology were bottlenecked by trade blacklist regulations.

1. A.Only one
2. B.Only two
3. C.Only three
4. D.All four

Answer: B. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Entity List is administered by the US Department of Commerce's Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS), not the Department of State.

Q15 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

Statement-I: During the 22nd ASEAN-India Summit, leaders formally evaluated the progress of the ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA) review to expedite its modernization. Statement-II: Indian businesses have faced non-tariff barriers and growing trade deficits under the AITIGA, which originally came into force in 2010.

1. A.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. B.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does NOT explain Statement-I
3. C.Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. D.Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: A. Statement-I is correct: The progress of the AITIGA review was formally evaluated at the head-of-state level during the 22nd ASEAN-India Summit to expedite the modernization of the trade agreement.

Q16 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

In its October 2025 South Asia Development Update, the World Bank forecasted a moderation in regional economic growth to 5.8% for the year 2026. According to the report, which of the following factors primarily accounts for this anticipated downgrade?

1. A.A sharp decline in Indian public investment and a stalled economic recovery in Sri Lanka.
2. B.The anticipated fading of economic stimulus and the pressure of rising tariffs.
3. C.The widespread displacement of manufacturing workers due to artificial intelligence.
4. D.The elimination of protectionist measures that previously shielded domestic industries.

Answer: B. The World Bank's October 2025 report downgraded the 2026 growth forecast to 5.8% specifically anticipating faded stimulus and tariff pressures.

Q17 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

Statement-I: India's finalisation of the terms of reference for a Free Trade Agreement with the Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU) is part of a strategic push to correct its massive bilateral trade deficit with Russia. Statement-II: The trade deficit was created when bilateral trade volumes unexpectedly surged past previous goals, largely driven by India's increased imports of discounted Russian crude oil.

1. A.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. B.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does NOT explain Statement-I
3. C.Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. D.Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: A. Statement-I is correct. To correct the massive trade imbalance with Russia, India has been pushing for greater market access and negotiating an FTA with the EAEU, for which the formal terms of reference were finalised…

Q18 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

With reference to the COP30 UNFCCC Climate Summit, consider the following statements: 1. The Tropical Forest Forever Facility (TFFF) functions as a traditional charity fund built entirely on direct donations from developed nations. 2. The Belém Action Mechanism (BAM) provides an institutional framework to mandate rights-based protections for workers affected by the transition away from fossil fuels. 3. The Belém Package includes a formal commitment to triple global adaptation finance by 2035. 4. The summit finalized 59 mandatory cross-sector indicators to track progress under the Global Goal on Adaptation Framework.

1. A.Only one
2. B.Only two
3. C.Only three
4. D.All four

Answer: B. Statement 1 is incorrect: Unlike earlier mechanisms such as the Green Climate Fund, the TFFF is a blended-finance mechanism designed like a sovereign wealth fund.

Q19 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

With reference to the inaugural India-EU Forum, consider the following statements: 1. It is a Track 1.5 dialogue co-hosted by the Ministry of External Affairs and the Ananta Centre, with discussions held under the Chatham House rule. 2. It was established primarily to negotiate and finalize the terms of the Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA).

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A. Statement 1 is correct: The inaugural India-EU Forum held in February 2026 was a Track 1.5 dialogue co-hosted by the Ministry of External Affairs and the Ananta Centre, bringing together government, industry, and…

Q20 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements: 1. The India-Saudi Strategic Partnership Council was established at the 2023 G20 Summit alongside the announcement of the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC). 2. During the 2025 state visit to Jeddah, India and Saudi Arabia signed formal agreements to standardize cooperation in postal services and anti-doping.

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B. Statement 1 is incorrect. The India-Saudi Strategic Partnership Council was established in 2019 to elevate bilateral relations and institutionalize top-level engagement, not at the 2023 G20 Summit.

Q21 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

Statement-I: During the February 2025 summit, the United States and India launched the COMPACT initiative as a central umbrella framework for defense, commerce, and technology cooperation. Statement-II: The two nations officially signed a Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA) during the summit to ensure bilateral trade reaches the 'Mission 500' target of $500 billion by 2030.

1. A.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. B.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does NOT explain Statement-I
3. C.Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. D.Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C. Statement-I is correct: The US-India COMPACT (Catalyzing Opportunities for Military Partnership, Accelerated Commerce & Technology) was indeed launched during the February 13, 2025 summit as a central umbrella…

Q22 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

Statement-I: The surge in India's defence exports to an all-time high of ₹23,622 crore in FY 2024-25 positively impacts the Capital Account balance within the Balance of Payments (BoP). Statement-II: An increase in defence exports leads to a higher inflow of foreign exchange, which improves India's balance of trade.

1. A.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. B.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does NOT explain Statement-I
3. C.Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. D.Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: D. Statement-I is incorrect. The export of goods, such as defence equipment, falls under the balance of trade, which is a component of the Current Account, not the Capital Account.

Q23 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

With reference to the BRICS grouping, consider the following statements: 1. The 2024 'BRICS Plus Format' expansion marked the first time the bloc expanded its membership since its formalization in 2006. 2. India's assumption of the BRICS Chairmanship for 2026 is its first time holding the position since the bloc's expansion to include nations like Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and the UAE. 3. Prior to India's 2026 chairmanship, multilateral BRICS discussions lacked a dedicated, cohesive framework for emerging technologies among developing nations. 4. The grouping was originally formalized through an agreement signed at the New Development Bank in 2006.

1. A.Only one
2. B.Only two
3. C.Only three
4. D.All four

Answer: B. Statement 1 is incorrect: The 2024 expansion was not the first time the bloc expanded; it previously expanded to include South Africa in 2010.

Q24 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

Which of the following statements accurately reflects the findings or background of the World Economic Situation and Prospects (WESP) Mid-2025 Update?

1. A.The report is solely produced by the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UN DESA) to track shifting macroeconomic trends.
2. B.It attributes India's projected 6.3 percent growth primarily to a successful transition toward export-led growth.
3. C.It downgrades the 2025 global economic growth projection to 2.4 percent due to heightened tariff uncertainties.
4. D.It highlights that historical global growth averages have consistently hovered around 2.4 percent prior to recent geopolitical fragmentation.

Answer: C. The WESP Mid-2025 Update downgrades global growth to 2.4 percent, citing heightened tariff uncertainties and trade friction that are suppressing international trade.

Q25 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

With reference to the World Economic Forum's Global Risks Report 2025, match the risk categories (List-I) with their specific classifications (List-II): List-I A. Most pressing immediate global risks for 2025 B. Risks capturing the top spots over the 10-year horizon C. Dominant immediate global risks in previous recent reports D. Top-tier threats driving systemic democratic instability List-II I. Cost-of-living crisis and post-pandemic inflation Ii. AI-powered misinformation and disinformation Iii. State-based armed conflict and extreme weather Iv. Extreme weather, biodiversity loss, and critical earth system changes

1. A.A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
2. B.A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
3. C.A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
4. D.A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii

Answer: A. A matches iii: State-based armed conflict and extreme weather have escalated to become the most pressing immediate global risks for 2025.

Q26 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

Statement-I: Remittances have become India's largest source of external finance, yet they reduce the overall Current Account Deficit (CAD) without creating debt obligations. Statement-II: Remittances are classified as unilateral 'Current Transfers' within the Current Account of the Balance of Payments.

1. A.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. B.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does NOT explain Statement-I
3. C.Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. D.Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: A. Statement-I is correct: As per the World Bank Remittance Flows Report 2024, remittances are now India's largest source of external finance (far exceeding Foreign Direct Investment).

Q27 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

With reference to the World Happiness Report, consider the following statements: 1. It was first published following a UN General Assembly resolution introduced by Finland. 2. It ranks countries using six key variables, which include both GDP per capita and the absence of corruption.

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B. Statement 1 is incorrect: The World Happiness Report was first published in 2012 following a 2011 UN General Assembly resolution introduced by Bhutan (which championed the concept of Gross National Happiness), not…

Q28 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements: 1. In 2024, global real wage growth recovered to its highest increase in over 15 years following a contraction in 2022. 2. Between 1999 and 2024, real wages in high-income countries grew by 29 percent while labor productivity grew by only 15 percent. 3. In India, the share of low-paid wage workers, defined as those earning less than 50 percent of the median hourly wage, has declined to 9.5 percent. 4. Wage inequality has increased in approximately two-thirds of all countries since the year 2000. How many of the statements given above are correct in the context of the ILO Global Wage Report 2024-25?

1. A.Only one
2. B.Only two
3. C.Only three
4. D.All four

Answer: B. Statement 1 is correct: Global real wages contracted by 0.9 percent in 2022 due to severe global inflation, but have recovered to a projected 2.7 percent in 2024, marking the highest increase in over 15 years.

Q29 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements: 1. The World Employment and Social Outlook (WESO) report is published biennially by the International Labour Organization. 2. Overall global unemployment dropped to a historic low of 5 percent in 2025. 3. Global youth unemployment remains stubbornly high at 12.6 percent. 4. Generative AI-driven automation primarily threatens blue-collar and routine physical labor in manufacturing sectors.

1. A.Only one
2. B.Only two
3. C.Only three
4. D.All four

Answer: B. Statement 1 is incorrect: The International Labour Organization (ILO) publishes the WESO report annually, not biennially, to track global labor market trends.

Q30 · Economy & Banking · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements: 1. The finalized New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG) text at COP29 explicitly excludes climate finance provided by Multilateral Development Banks (MDBs) from being counted toward the developed nations' $300 billion target. 2. The Mitigation Work Programme (MWP) remained unchanged at COP29, preventing the introduction of prescriptive 2030 and 2035 emission reduction targets.

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B. Statement 1 is incorrect: The finalized NCQG text controversially counts (rather than excludes) climate finance provided by Multilateral Development Banks (MDBs) toward the developed nations' $300 billion target.

Q31 · International Relations · UPSC shape

How is the annual Chairmanship of the East Asia Summit (EAS) allocated among its participating nations?

1. A.It rotates annually among all 19 participating member nations.
2. B.It is exclusively held by the ASEAN member state holding the ASEAN Chairmanship for that year.
3. C.It alternates annually between an ASEAN member state and a global dialogue partner.
4. D.It is awarded through a consensus vote among the original 16 founding members.

Answer: B. The East Asia Summit operates strictly on the principle of 'ASEAN Centrality'. Because of this structural modality, the Chairmanship does not rotate among all 19 members (which now includes Timor-Leste) or alternate…

Q32 · International Relations · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements regarding the V-Dem Institute's Democracy Report 2025: 1. The V-Dem Institute, which publishes the annual Democracy Report, is based in Sweden. 2. The 2025 report ranked India 100th out of 179 countries on the Liberal Democracy Index. 3. The 2025 report classifies India as an 'electoral democracy' owing to its robust electoral institutions.

1. A.Only one
2. B.Only two
3. C.All three
4. D.None

Answer: B. Statement 1 is correct: The V-Dem Institute is based at the University of Gothenburg in Sweden.

Q33 · International Relations · UPSC shape

Arrange the following milestones and scheduled dates related to the Indo-Danish Energy Partnership in chronological order (from earliest to latest): 1. The initially scheduled expiration of the first INDEP MoU. 2. The scheduled conclusion of the INDEP-II framework. 3. The signing of the original Indo-Danish Energy Partnership (INDEP) MoU. 4. The early renewal of the energy cooperation agreement launching INDEP-II.

1. A.3, 4, 1, 2
2. B.3, 1, 4, 2
3. C.4, 3, 1, 2
4. D.3, 4, 2, 1

Answer: A. The correct chronological sequence is 3, 4, 1, 2.

Q34 · International Relations · UPSC shape

During the fifth anniversary of the India-Australia Comprehensive Strategic Partnership in 2025, the two nations signed an Implementing Arrangement that transitions their maritime cooperation beyond the 2020 MLSA by formalizing a framework specifically for:

1. A.Reciprocal access to military bases for basic logistics and refuelling.
2. B.Ad-hoc international coordination for submarine emergencies.
3. C.Mutual submarine rescue support and rapid joint emergency responses.
4. D.Establishing an alternative security architecture for regional hegemony.

Answer: C. The 2025 Implementing Arrangement specifically establishes a formalized, mutual submarine rescue support framework for rapid joint responses (Option 3).

Q35 · International Relations · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements: 1. The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) post, which orchestrated the tri-service jointness during Operation Sindoor, was established following the recommendations of both the Kargil Review Committee and the Naresh Chandra Task Force. 2. Unlike previous prolonged border standoffs, the conflict was swiftly de-escalated via rapid diplomatic off-ramps led by the Ministry of External Affairs.

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A. Statement 1 is correct: the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) post was created in 2019 following the recommendations of the Kargil Review Committee (1999) and the Naresh Chandra Task Force (2012), and this framework…

Q36 · International Relations · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements regarding the UN General Assembly resolutions on the Gaza conflict: 1. India abstained from the October 2023 resolution because it demanded an unconditional ceasefire without hostage release preconditions. 2. The December 2024 resolution, which India voted in favour of, explicitly reaffirmed the mandate of the UN Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees (UNRWA).

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B. Statement 1 is incorrect: While the broader international community was deeply fractured over calling for an unconditional ceasefire without hostage release preconditions, India's specific reason for abstaining from the…

Q37 · International Relations · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements: 1. The Pravasi Bharatiya Divas Convention has been held biennially since its first edition was organized in 2003. 2. Prior to 2006, the convention was exclusively held in New Delhi.

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B. Statement 1 is incorrect: While the first Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) was organized in 2003, it was held annually until 2015.

Q38 · International Relations · UPSC shape

Statement-I: According to the SIPRI Yearbook 2025, all nine nuclear-armed states continued to modernize and expand their arsenals in 2024. Statement-II: The steady decline in the total number of global nuclear weapons since the end of the Cold War was primarily driven by the enforcement of the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT).

1. A.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. B.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does NOT explain Statement-I
3. C.Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. D.Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C. Statement-I is correct: The SIPRI Yearbook 2025 explicitly states that all nine nuclear-armed states, including India, Pakistan, and China, continued to modernize and expand their arsenals in 2024.

Q39 · International Relations · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements in respect of the India-Ethiopia Strategic Partnership: 1. India signed a Memorandum of Understanding on debt restructuring for Ethiopia specifically under the G20 Common Framework. 2. The greenfield data centre at Ethiopia's Ministry of Foreign Affairs is being constructed as an outright Indian government grant.

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A. Statement 1 is correct: The partnership includes an MoU on debt restructuring for Ethiopia explicitly under the G20 Common Framework, marking a structural shift toward coordinated multilateral debt relief by India.

Q40 · International Relations · UPSC shape

At the 11th ASEAN Defence Ministers' Meeting Plus (ADMM-Plus) in 2024, which of the following did India explicitly propose to be adopted specifically for modern dispute resolution?

1. A.The ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) model
2. B.The UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
3. C.Buddhist principles of non-violence and peaceful co-existence
4. D.The 'Act East' diplomatic framework

Answer: C. At the 11th ADMM-Plus, India actively injected civilizational diplomacy into the security framework by explicitly proposing Buddhist principles of non-violence and peaceful co-existence for modern dispute resolution.

Q41 · International Relations · UPSC shape

The April 2025 bilateral agreements permitting premier Indian institutions like IIM Ahmedabad and IIFT to establish full-fledged overseas campuses in the UAE were directly enabled by the framework introduced under which of the following?

1. A.The Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) of 2022
2. B.The National Education Policy (NEP) of 2020
3. C.The Comprehensive Strategic Partnership elevated in 2017
4. D.The UAE-India Friendship institutional initiative

Answer: B. India's National Education Policy (NEP) of 2020 introduced the specific framework allowing top-tier Indian institutions to operate offshore campuses, paving the way for the new educational agreements in Dubai.

Q42 · International Relations · UPSC shape

During the May 2025 military standoff triggered by Operation Sindoor, what specific diplomatic condition immediately preceded the direct, high-level US mediation that secured a ceasefire between India and Pakistan?

1. A.The failure of traditional Track II diplomacy to break the deadlock between the two nations.
2. B.The mutual agreement to invoke the third-party arbitration provisions of the 1972 Shimla Agreement.
3. C.The successful restoration of formal bilateral communication channels between New Delhi and Islamabad.
4. D.The reliance on informal third-party intervention mechanisms established during the 2019 Balakot airstrikes.

Answer: A. because the swift US diplomatic intervention broke the deadlock 'when traditional Track II diplomacy failed.' Option 2 is incorrect because the 1972 Shimla Agreement explicitly rejected third-party mediation, rather…

Q43 · International Relations · UPSC shape

At the 17th BRICS Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in July 2025, which country officially joined the bloc as its 11th member?

1. A.Egypt
2. B.Iran
3. C.Indonesia
4. D.Ethiopia

Answer: C. At the 17th BRICS Summit in Rio de Janeiro, Indonesia officially joined as the 11th member of the organization. Egypt, Iran, and Ethiopia (along with the UAE) were part of the previous expansion in January 2024, not the…

Q44 · International Relations · UPSC shape

In the context of the India-Malaysia Joint Military Exercise 'Harimau Shakti', what was a specific operational shift in the 2024 edition compared to earlier joint trainings?

1. A.A transition from sub-conventional operations to broader conventional military coordination.
2. B.A heavy emphasis on advanced simulated operations, including harbour occupation and anti-MT ambushes.
3. C.The deployment of the Royal Malaysian Regiment to the Umroi Cantonment for jungle warfare training.
4. D.A shift away from the United Nations Charter mandate to focus exclusively on the Act East Policy.

Answer: B. because the 2024 edition heavily emphasized advanced simulated operations, including anti-MT ambushes and harbour occupation, marking a shift from earlier editions. Option 1 is incorrect as it reverses the timeline;

Q45 · International Relations · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements in respect of international counter-terrorism frameworks at the United Nations: 1. The Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism (CCIT) is currently stalled at the UN General Assembly's Sixth Committee due to disagreements over the right to self-determination. 2. The UN Global Counter-Terrorism Strategy, adopted in 2006, serves as a legally binding treaty that establishes a universal definition of terrorism.

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A. Statement 1 is correct: the Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism (CCIT), first proposed by India in 1996, remains stalled at the UN General Assembly's Sixth Committee due to disagreements over the…

Q46 · International Relations · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements in respect of India's diplomatic engagements at the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO): 1. The 2025 Tianjin summit marked the first prime ministerial visit from India to China since India officially joined the SCO as a full member at the 2017 Astana summit. 2. During the 2025 Tianjin summit, India and China held a dedicated bilateral meeting at the highest level, a practice that had been avoided in recent multilateral meetings due to the border standoff.

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B. Statement 1 is incorrect: While India and Pakistan did officially join the SCO as full members at the 2017 Astana summit, the 2025 Tianjin summit was not the first prime ministerial visit to China since then.

Q47 · International Relations · UPSC shape

Match List-I with List-II based on the context of the Second G20 Foreign Ministers' Meeting and India's multilateral stance: List-I A. Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism (CCIT) B. South Africa C. Second G20 Foreign Ministers' Meeting D. India's 'no impunity' policy List-II 1. Assumed the G20 presidency in December 2024 2. Asserted to counter nations accommodating state-sponsored terrorism and nuclear blackmail 3. Proposed UN treaty from 1996 to criminalize all forms of international terrorism 4. Convened in New York on the sidelines of the UN General Assembly

1. A.A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
2. B.A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
3. C.A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
4. D.A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

Answer: A. A matches 3: The CCIT is a proposed UN treaty from 1996 to criminalize international terrorism. B matches 1: South Africa assumed the G20 presidency in December 2024.

Q48 · International Relations · UPSC shape

With reference to the mechanisms governing India-Pakistan disputes, consider the following statements: 1. The UN Security Council addressed the recent military mobilization and suspension of the Indus Waters Treaty through formal open debates. 2. India considers the 1949 mandate of the UN Military Observer Group in India and Pakistan (UNMOGIP) obsolete, maintaining that disputes must be resolved bilaterally under the 1972 Simla Agreement.

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B. Statement 1 is incorrect: The UN Security Council addressed the escalating tensions, water weaponization, and troop mobilization through emergency closed-door consultations, not formal open debates.

Q49 · International Relations · SSC shape

Consider: 1) FCI operates under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. 2) The rice supply is scheduled for 2026. Which is correct?

1. A.Only 1
2. B.Only 2
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C. FCI operates under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, and the rice supply is scheduled for 2026.

Q50 · Government Schemes · UPSC shape

During the July 2025 bilateral visit, India announced a major policy shift regarding the Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) scheme for the Indian diaspora in Trinidad and Tobago. What was this specific modification?

1. A.It merged the PIO and OCI schemes specifically to accommodate descendants of indentured laborers who arrived starting in 1845.
2. B.It explicitly extended OCI card eligibility to the sixth generation of the Indian diaspora in the country.
3. C.It granted actual dual citizenship to the 'Girmitiya' diaspora by creating an explicit exception to Article 9 of the Constitution.
4. D.It restricted OCI eligibility strictly to the fourth generation of descendants to align with the L.M. Singhvi committee recommendations.

Answer: B. The Indian government explicitly extended OCI eligibility to the sixth generation for the Indian diaspora in Trinidad and Tobago, acknowledging their 180-year historical connection.

Q51 · Government Schemes · UPSC shape

According to the UNAIDS Global AIDS Update 2025, robust international assistance previously accounted for what percentage of HIV prevention programmes in low- and middle-income countries before recent funding withdrawals?

1. A.60 percent
2. B.80 percent
3. C.90 percent
4. D.95 percent

Answer: B. According to the UNAIDS report, robust international assistance previously accounted for 80 percent of prevention programmes in low- and middle-income countries before massive funding withdrawals disrupted the response.

Q52 · Government Schemes · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements: 1. The 2026 edition marks the first time Exercise MILAN and the International Fleet Review (IFR) were merged into a single maritime assembly. 2. Prior to this 2026 combined edition, the International Fleet Review had never been hosted in Visakhapatnam.

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A. Statement 1 is correct: Historically, MILAN exercises and International Fleet Reviews were conducted as separate military and diplomatic events.

Q53 · Government Schemes · UPSC shape

Match List-I (Agreements/Summits related to India's G7 engagement) with List-II (Key provisions/Historical context) based on the developments surrounding the 51st G7 Summit: List-I A. Critical Minerals Action Plan B. Kananaskis Wildfire Charter C. Biarritz Summit D. Evian Summit List-II 1. Marked the beginning of India's consistent annual participation as an outreach partner country. 2. The first instance of India's engagement with the G8/G7 group. 3. Establishes standardized mutual assistance protocols during extreme transnational events. 4. Includes a dedicated 'Supply Chain Mapping Initiative' to mitigate rare earth refining chokepoints.

1. A.A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
2. B.A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
3. C.A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
4. D.A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

Answer: A. A matches 4: The 'Critical Minerals Action Plan' established a dedicated 'Supply Chain Mapping Initiative' to collectively identify and mitigate chokepoints in rare earth element refining.

Q54 · Government Schemes · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements: 1. The SAMADHAN doctrine, launched by the Ministry of Defence in 2017, strictly mandates a 'No access to financing' pillar to choke Naxal financial pipelines. 2. Under the current twin-track approach against Left-Wing Extremism, accelerated infrastructure projects such as the installation of mobile towers are supported by the Security Related Expenditure (SRE) Scheme.

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B. Statement 1 is incorrect. While the SAMADHAN doctrine does strictly adhere to a 'No access to financing' pillar to choke terror financing, it was launched by the Ministry of Home Affairs in 2017, not the Ministry of…

Q55 · Government Schemes · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements: 1. Software Defined Radios (SDRs) dynamically alter modulation schemes and operating frequencies on the fly by utilizing rigid hardware components such as mixers and modulators. 2. The recent acquisition of SDRs for the Indian Coast Guard was made under the 'Buy (Indian-IDDM)' category to ensure interoperability with the Indian Navy.

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B. Statement 1 is incorrect: Software Defined Radios (SDRs) use software to dynamically alter modulation schemes and operating frequencies on the fly, specifically replacing the reliance on rigid hardware components like…

Q56 · Government Schemes · UPSC shape

During the January 2026 visit of German Chancellor Friedrich Merz, India secured a major European anchor buyer under its National Green Hydrogen Mission. The specific large-scale offtake agreement endorsed during this visit establishes a concrete export pipeline to German markets for which of the following commodities?

1. A.Green Ammonia
2. B.Liquefied Green Hydrogen
3. C.Green Methanol
4. D.Synthetic Aviation Fuel

Answer: A. During the visit, the leaders endorsed a large-scale 'Green Ammonia offtake agreement' under India's National Green Hydrogen Mission to establish a concrete export pipeline to German markets. Option 2 is incorrect;

Q57 · Government Schemes · SSC shape

Consider the statements about NPS Swasthya: 1) It partners with private players. 2) It was launched in 2026. Which are correct?

1. A.Only 1
2. B.Only 2
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither

Answer: C. PFRDA launched the scheme in 2026 and partnered with private companies.

Q58 · Government Schemes · SSC shape

Consider: 1) The scheme takes effect in April 2025. 2) It requires 20 years of service for the full pension. Which are correct?

1. A.Only 1
2. B.Only 2
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A. It takes effect in April 2025, but requires 25 years of service for the full pension.

Q59 · Government Schemes · SSC shape

Consider: 1) The mission will study Venus's atmosphere and surface geology. 2) ISRO held a science meet in October 2025. Which are correct?

1. A.Only 1
2. B.Only 2
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C. The mission studies the atmosphere and surface geology, and a meet happened in October 2025.

Q60 · Government Schemes · SSC shape

Which ministry runs the Skill India Programme, and until what year is the current update valid?

1. A.Ministry of Education until 2025
2. B.Ministry of Labour and Employment until 2026
3. C.Ministry of Finance until 2028
4. D.Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship until 2026

Answer: D. The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship runs the programme, which is valid until 2026.

Q61 · Government Schemes · SSC shape

Consider the following statements about the PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana: 1) It was launched in 2025. 2) It focuses on employment generation. Which is correct?

1. A.Only 1
2. B.Only 2
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither

Answer: C. The scheme was officially launched in 2025 and focuses on employment generation.

Q62 · Government Schemes · SSC shape

Consider: 1) The Sports Internship Policy was launched in December 2025. 2) It was introduced by the Ministry of Youth Affairs.

1. A.Only 1
2. B.Only 2
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C. The policy was launched in December 2025 by the Ministry of Youth Affairs.

Q63 · Defence & Security · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements: 1. Global arms revenues experienced a dip in 2022 due to pandemic-related supply chain disruptions and component shortages. 2. Despite the growth of Asian defence contractors, the United States accounts for half of the global arms revenues. 3. The Positive Indigenisation Lists guarantee demand for local manufacturers by embargoing the import of specific defence platforms. 4. The featured Indian firms in the SIPRI Top 100 list contributed to an aggregate revenue increase of 4.2 percent.

1. A.Only one
2. B.Only two
3. C.Only three
4. D.All four

Answer: C. Statement 1 is correct: According to the SIPRI report, global arms revenues experienced a dip in 2022 due to pandemic-related supply chain disruptions and component shortages, before bouncing back in 2023.

Q64 · Defence & Security · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements regarding India's defence procurement: 1. For the 2020-2024 period, India ranked as the absolute largest arms importer globally. 2. The Ministry of Defence publishes 'Positive Indigenisation Lists', previously termed 'Negative Indigenisation Lists', to progressively ban the import of specific weapons.

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B. Statement 1 is incorrect: According to the SIPRI 'Trends in International Arms Transfers 2024' report, India was the second-largest arms importer globally for the 2020-2024 period, ranking just behind Ukraine due to the…

Q65 · Defence & Security · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements in respect of India's defence imports: 1. The Indian government established Positive Indigenisation Lists to ban the import of specific weapon systems. 2. According to the SIPRI report for the 2021-2025 period, India remained one of the world's largest arms importers despite domestic indigenisation efforts.

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C. Statement 1 is correct: To counter structural import reliance, the Indian government established Positive Indigenisation Lists to explicitly ban the import of specific weapon systems.

Q66 · Defence & Security · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements: 1. The procurement of the 97 LCA Tejas Mk1A jets is categorized under the highest priority 'Buy (Indian-IDDM)' rule of the Defence Acquisition Procedure 2020. 2. The final financial clearance for this contract was granted by the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) in August 2025. 3. The 2025 contract consists solely of single-seat fighter jets to rapidly offset the operational void left by the retiring MiG-21 interceptors. 4. The Mk1A variant integrates exactly 67 new native items compared to the previous 2021 contract.

1. A.Only one
2. B.Only two
3. C.Only three
4. D.All four

Answer: B. Statement 1 is correct: The procurement is executed under the highest priority 'Buy (Indian-IDDM)' category of the Defence Acquisition Procedure 2020, reflecting the push for 'Aatmanirbhar Bharat'.

Q67 · Defence & Security · UPSC shape

Regarding the evolution of the India-Uzbekistan Joint Military Exercise 'DUSTLIK', which of the following accurately describes the change in the Indian contingent's composition for the 6th edition in 2025 compared to the 5th edition in 2024?

1. A.It transitioned from being primarily represented by the Jat Regiment to integrating troops from the Mahar Regiment along with the Indian Air Force.
2. B.It shifted from an exclusive deployment of the Mahar Regiment to incorporating the Jat Regiment for semi-mountainous terrain operations.
3. C.It evolved from relying solely on the Indian Air Force to a joint deployment primarily represented by the Jat Regiment.
4. D.It replaced the joint participation of the Mahar Regiment and the Indian Air Force with standard capacity-building troops from the Jat Regiment.

Answer: A. the Indian Army contingent in the 2024 edition (5th edition) was primarily represented by troops from the Jat Regiment, whereas the 2025 edition (6th edition) integrated troops from the Mahar Regiment along with…

Q68 · Defence & Security · UPSC shape

The design of the recently inducted ancient stitched ship INSV Kaundinya was entirely extrapolated from which of the following sources?

1. A.A 5th-century painting found in Cave No. 17 of the Ajanta Caves.
2. B.The medieval travel accounts of Ibn Battuta and Abd al-Razzaq Samarqandi.
3. C.Cultural motifs such as the Gandabherunda and Harappan-style stone anchors.
4. D.Traditional boatbuilding techniques preserved by shipwrights in Kerala.

Answer: A. the ship's design was entirely extrapolated from a 5th-century painting found in Cave No. 17 of the Ajanta Caves.

Q69 · Defence & Security · SSC shape

Consider: 1) It is held every two years. 2) The 2025 event was its 15th edition. Which is correct about Aero India?

1. A.Only 1
2. B.Only 2
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither

Answer: C. Aero India is held every two years, and the 2025 event marked its 15th edition.

Q70 · Defence & Security · SSC shape

When did the Defence Procurement Manual 2025 come into force?

1. A.October 1, 2025
2. B.December 1, 2025
3. C.January 1, 2025
4. D.November 1, 2025

Answer: D. The Defence Procurement Manual 2025 came into force on November 1, 2025.

Q71 · Defence & Security · SSC shape

Which ministry and body were responsible for inducting the ancient stitched ship in 2025?

1. A.Ministry of Ports and Indian Coast Guard
2. B.Ministry of Culture and Archaeological Survey of India
3. C.Ministry of Home Affairs and Border Security Force
4. D.Ministry of Defence and Indian Navy

Answer: D. The answer is the Ministry of Defence and the Indian Navy for the 2025 induction.

Q72 · Defence & Security · SSC shape

By which year will Bharat Dynamics Limited supply India's first heavy torpedo to the naval laboratory?

1. A.2024
2. B.2025
3. C.2026
4. D.2027

Answer: C. Bharat Dynamics Limited will supply the heavy torpedo by 2026.

Q73 · Sports · SSC shape

Consider: 1) Sumit Antil defended his javelin gold. 2) India hosted the 2025 World Para Athletics Championships. Which is correct?

1. A.Only 1
2. B.Only 2
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither

Answer: C. Sumit Antil defended his gold, and India hosted the 2025 World Para Athletics Championships.

Q74 · Sports · SSC shape

In which month and year did the Union Cabinet approve the National Sports Policy 2025?

1. A.June 2025
2. B.September 2025
3. C.August 2025
4. D.July 2025

Answer: D. The new framework was officially approved in July 2025.

Q75 · Sports · SSC shape

Consider: 1) India topped the medal tally at the 2025 World Boxing Cup Finals. 2) The regulator is World Boxing. Which are correct?

1. A.Only 1
2. B.Only 2
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C. India finished first and lists World Boxing as the regulator.

Q76 · Sports · SSC shape

Consider: 1) The Union Cabinet approved the National Sports Policy 2025. 2) It aims to find young talent early. Which are correct?

1. A.Only 1
2. B.Only 2
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C. The Union Cabinet approved the policy and it focuses on finding young talent early.

Q77 · Sports · SSC shape

Which state won the overall team title at the 7th Khelo India Youth Games 2025?

1. A.Maharashtra
2. B.Haryana
3. C.Bihar
4. D.Punjab

Answer: A. Maharashtra won the overall team title with a total of 158 medals.

Q78 · Sports · SSC shape

Which city hosted the 9th Asian Winter Games in 2025?

1. A.Harbin
2. B.Beijing
3. C.Tokyo
4. D.Seoul

Answer: A. The 9th Asian Winter Games were held in Harbin, China.

Q79 · Sports · SSC shape

Consider the statements: 1) Ayush Shetty won the men's singles title at the US Open 2025. 2) The tournament framework is the BWF World Tour. Which are correct?

1. A.Only 1
2. B.Only 2
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C. Ayush Shetty won the men's singles title under the BWF World Tour framework.

Q80 · Sports · SSC shape

Which team did India defeat in the final to win the 2025 ICC Champions Trophy?

1. A.Australia
2. B.New Zealand
3. C.England
4. D.South Africa

Answer: B. India won the 2025 ICC Champions Trophy by defeating New Zealand.

Q81 · Science & Technology · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements: 1. The human body prevents autoimmunity solely by destroying self-reacting immune cells during their development in the thymus gland. 2. The FOXP3 gene is the master regulator governing the development of a specific subset of CD4+ T cells that actively dampen immune reactions. 3. Emerging targeted therapies aim to precisely inhibit regulatory T cells to treat severe autoimmune diseases and prevent organ transplant rejection. 4. Memory-based acquired immunity, which distinguishes foreign molecules from self-cells, is an evolutionary trait of higher vertebrates.

1. A.Only one
2. B.Only two
3. C.Only three
4. D.All four

Answer: B. Statement 1 is incorrect: While central tolerance in the thymus destroys many self-reacting cells, it is not the sole mechanism.

Q82 · Science & Technology · UPSC shape

With reference to India's hypersonic missile development, consider the following statements: 1. The November 2024 flight trial of the long-range hypersonic missile marked India's first successful demonstration of a scramjet-powered vehicle sustaining speeds above Mach 5. 2. The missile achieves its ability to bypass modern air defense systems by combining the extreme speed of a ballistic missile with unpredictable mid-flight maneuverability.

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B. Statement 1 is incorrect: While the November 16, 2024 test was the maiden flight trial of India's first fully integrated long-range hypersonic missile, it was not the first successful demonstration of a scramjet-powered…

Q83 · Science & Technology · UPSC shape

Consider the following statements in respect of the Sri Lanka Unique Digital Identity (SL-UDI) project: 1. The biometric data captured under the project is managed solely by Sri Lanka's Department for Registration of Persons. 2. The project's digital architecture is built utilizing India's proprietary software frameworks.

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A. Statement 1 is correct: Despite being funded by an Indian grant and integrated by Indian IT firms, the biometric data is managed solely by Sri Lanka's Department for Registration of Persons to ensure absolute data…

Q84 · Science & Technology · UPSC shape

Statement-I: According to the IQAir World Air Quality Report 2025, only 14 percent of global cities are in compliance with the World Health Organization's annual PM2.5 guidelines. Statement-II: The World Health Organization updated its Air Quality Guidelines in 2021, halving the acceptable annual average for PM2.5 from 10 to 5 micrograms per cubic meter.

1. A.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. B.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does NOT explain Statement-I
3. C.Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. D.Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: A. Statement-I is correct: The IQAir World Air Quality Report 2025 notes that only 14 percent of global cities met the WHO annual PM2.5 guidelines.

Q85 · Science & Technology · UPSC shape

With reference to the 2025 state visit of the Indonesian President to India, consider the following statements: 1. The Memorandum of Understanding on Maritime Safety and Security was signed directly between the Indian Coast Guard and the Indonesian Maritime Security Agency. 2. The Memorandum of Understanding for Traditional Medicine Quality Assurance was established between the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Indonesian Food and Drug Authority.

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A. Statement 1 is correct: During the visit, a targeted MoU on Maritime Safety and Security was signed directly between the Indian Coast Guard and the Indonesian Maritime Security Agency.

Q86 · Science & Technology · UPSC shape

With reference to the discoveries awarded the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics, consider the following statements: 1. The experiments demonstrated that macroscopic electrical circuits can possess discrete energy states, effectively functioning as controllable 'artificial atoms'. 2. The discoveries required the formulation of new fundamental mathematical equations, as the Schrödinger equation cannot be applied to macroscopic collective variables.

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A. Statement 1 is correct: The 2025 Nobel laureates proved that macroscopic electrical circuits possess discrete, quantised energy states, effectively functioning as controllable 'artificial atoms'.

Q87 · Science & Technology · SSC shape

How many collision avoidance manoeuvres did the Indian Space Research Organisation perform in 2025?

1. A.100
2. B.120
3. C.140
4. D.160

Answer: C. ISRO moved its satellites 140 times in 2025 to avoid space debris.

Q88 · Polity & Governance · UPSC shape

During the official visit of Fiji's Prime Minister to India in August 2025, Fiji officially announced its intention to join which of the following Indian-led frameworks to strengthen regional maritime cooperation?

1. A.Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR)
2. B.Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI)
3. C.Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC)
4. D.Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation (ITEC)

Answer: B. Fiji officially announced its intention to join the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) during the August 2025 visit.

Q89 · Polity & Governance · UPSC shape

At the 80th UN General Assembly, what specific procedural argument did India and the G4 nations advance to counter the claim that absolute consensus is mandatory for UN Security Council reform?

1. A.They asserted that consensus is not a decision-making requirement under the UN General Assembly's Rules of Procedure.
2. B.They invoked the 56 actions of the 'Pact for the Future' to legally override the Intergovernmental Negotiations framework.
3. C.They demanded that the Uniting for Consensus group formally draft a consolidated model for text-based negotiations.
4. D.They utilized UNGA Decision 62/557 to transition the negotiations into a legally binding treaty format.

Answer: A. At the 80th UNGA, the G4 explicitly asserted that consensus is not a 'decision-making requirement' under the UN General Assembly's Rules of Procedure, challenging opponents who used absolute consensus as a procedural…

Q90 · Polity & Governance · SSC shape

According to the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act 2025, what is the maximum number of nominees allowed for a bank deposit?

1. A.Four
2. B.Two
3. C.Three
4. D.One

Answer: A. The Banking Laws (Amendment) Act 2025 allows an account holder to name up to four nominees.

Q91 · Polity & Governance · SSC shape

Which ministry is associated with the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act 2025?

1. A.Ministry of Corporate Affairs
2. B.Ministry of Finance
3. C.Ministry of Commerce
4. D.Ministry of Home Affairs

Answer: B. The Banking Laws (Amendment) Act 2025 falls under the Ministry of Finance.

Q92 · Polity & Governance · SSC shape

Consider: 1) The act reserves one-third of seats for women. 2) The act came into force in April 2026. Which statements are correct?

1. A.Only 1
2. B.Only 2
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither

Answer: C. It aims to reserve one-third of seats and came into force in April 2026.

Q93 · Awards & Honours · SSC shape

Who was awarded the 2025 Padma Shri and is known as the 'Musahar ki Messiah' for his social work in Bihar?

1. A.Libia Lobo Sardesai
2. B.Chaitram Devchand Pawar
3. C.Venkappa Ambaji Sugatekar
4. D.Bhim Singh Bhavesh

Answer: D. Bhim Singh Bhavesh is known as the 'Musahar ki Messiah' in Bihar.

Q94 · Awards & Honours · SSC shape

In which year did the Guntur Municipal Corporation win the UNIDO Gender Equality Mobilisation Award?

1. A.2023
2. B.2024
3. C.2025
4. D.2026

Answer: D. The year for this UNIDO Gender Equality Award is 2026.

Q95 · Awards & Honours · SSC shape

Which ministry is associated with the Padma Vibhushan awards?

1. A.Ministry of External Affairs
2. B.Ministry of Home Affairs
3. C.Ministry of Corporate Affairs
4. D.Ministry of Education

Answer: B. The answer is the Ministry of Home Affairs for the Padma Vibhushan 2025.

Q96 · Awards & Honours · SSC shape

Which veteran hockey player won the Padma Bhushan award in the Sports category in 2025?

1. A.Manpreet Singh
2. B.P.R. Sreejesh
3. C.Harmanpreet Singh
4. D.Sardar Singh

Answer: B. Veteran hockey goalkeeper P.R. Sreejesh won the Padma Bhushan award in 2025.

Q97 · Awards & Honours · SSC shape

Which ministry is associated with the Padma Bhushan awards for 2025?

1. A.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
2. B.Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
3. C.Ministry of Culture
4. D.Ministry of Home Affairs

Answer: D. The answer is the Ministry of Home Affairs for the Padma Bhushan awards.

Q98 · Environment & Ecology · UPSC shape

With reference to the World Press Freedom Index, consider the following statements: 1. It is published annually by the non-governmental organization Reporters Without Borders to evaluate the environment for journalism across 180 countries. 2. Despite an improvement in its numerical rank in the 2025 edition, India remains in the 'very serious' category for press freedom.

1. A.1 only
2. B.2 only
3. C.Both 1 and 2
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C. Statement 1 is correct: The World Press Freedom Index has been published annually by Reporters Without Borders (RSF) since 2002 to evaluate the environment for journalism across 180 countries.

Q99 · Environment & Ecology · SSC shape

Which city hosted the 64th meeting of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change in March 2026?

1. A.Geneva
2. B.Bangkok
3. C.Nairobi
4. D.New York

Answer: B. Thailand hosted the 64th IPCC meeting in Bangkok during March 2026.

Q100 · Environment & Ecology · SSC shape

Which country is set to host the COP30 climate summit in 2025?

1. A.Japan
2. B.India
3. C.China
4. D.Brazil

Answer: D. Brazil will host the milestone COP30 climate summit in 2025.